ISTQB-International Software Testing Qualifications Board

Certifying Software Testers Worldwide
The International Software Testing Qualifications Board (ISTQB) is a software testing qualification certification organization that operates internationally. Founded in Edinburgh in November 2002, ISTQB is a non-profit association legally registered in Belgium.
The ISTQB qualifications are based on a syllabus with a hierarchy of qualifications and guidelines for accreditation and examination. ISTQB provides 3 levels of certification

1. FOUNDATION LEVEL
1. Foundation Level in a Nutshell(CTFL)
Why Foundation?
The Foundation Level qualification is aimed at professionals who need to demonstrate practical knowledge of the fundamental concepts of software testing. This includes people in roles such as test designers, test analysts, test engineers, test consultants, test managers, user acceptance testers and IT Professionals.
The Foundation Level qualification is also appropriate for anyone who needs a basic understanding of software testing, such as project managers, quality managers, software development managers, business analysts, IT directors and management consultants.
What are the entry criteria?
It is suggested that candidates for the Foundation Level certification have at least six months' practical experience in a professional testing role.
Which levels are available after Foundation?
Holders of the Foundation certificate are eligible to continue on to higher level software testing qualifications, certifying themselves at Advanced level, and then at the Expert level, as shown below. The entire learning journey is underpinned by the ISTQB® Glossary.
2. Foundation Level Content

3. Foundation Level Learning Objectives
Foundation Level professionals should be able to:
1.Use a common language for efficient and effective communication with other testers and project stakeholders.
2.Understand established testing concepts, the fundamental test process, test approaches, and principles to support test objectives.
3.Design and prioritize tests by using established techniques; analyze both functional and non-functional specifications (such as performance and usability) at all test levels for systems with a low to medium level of complexity.
4.Execute tests according to agreed test plans, and analyze and report on the results of tests.
Write clear and understandable incident reports.
5. Effectively participate in reviews of small to medium-sized projects.
Be familiar with different types of testing tools and their uses; assist in the selection and implementation process.
4. Foundation Level exam structure
To get an ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Certificate you must successfully pass the Foundation Exam administered by your National or Regional Board or Examination Provider.
Upon successful completion of the exam, you will be issued with an ISTQB® Foundation Level Certificate, which is internationally recognized.
The exam aims to verify that the candidate has acquired the professional knowledge contained in the syllabus.
The Foundation Level exam is characterized by:
1. 40 multiple-choice questions
2. a scoring of 1 point for each correct answer
3. a pass mark of 65% (26 or more points)
4. a duration of 60 minutes (or 75 minutes for candidates taking exams that are not in their native or local language).
Exams may be taken as part of a course delivered by an Accredited Training Provider or taken independently at an examination center or in a public exam.
The typical duration of the Foundation Level Training offered by an Accredited Training Provider is 3 days. Completion of an accredited training course is not a prerequisite for participating to the exam.
Please refer to the Web Sites of the ISTQB® Member Boards and ISTQB® Accredited Training Providers for exam and training availability.
5. Foundation Level material for download
Foundation Level Syllabus
Foundation Level Learning Objectives
Sample Foundation Level Exam Questions
2. Advanced Level
1. Advanced Level in a Nutshell
Why advanced?
The Advanced Level qualification is aimed at people who have achieved an advanced point in their careers in software testing. This includes people in roles such as testers, test analysts, test engineers, test consultants, test managers, user acceptance testers and software developers.
This Advanced Level qualification is also appropriate for anyone who wants a deeper understanding of software testing, such as project managers, quality managers, software development managers, business analysts, IT directors and management consultants.
To receive Advanced Level certification, candidates must hold the Foundation Certificate and satisfy the Exam Board which examines them that they have sufficient practical experience to be considered Advanced Level qualified.Refer to the relevant Exam Board to understand their specific practical experience criteria.
Advanced Level Modules
Test Manager
Test Analyst
Technical Test Analyst
Technical Test Analyst
When a Certified tester successfully achieves certification on all three modules, he receives a "Full Advanced" certificate
2. Advanced Level contents
Contents are highlighted with different colours, according to the Advanced Level Exam in which they are covered:
Common Topics
Test Management Topics
Test Analyst Topics
Technical Test Analyst Topics

3.Test Manager Learning Objectives
Advanced Level Test Managers should be able to:
Define the overall testing goals and strategy for the systems being tested
Plan, schedule and track the tasks
Describe and organize the necessary activities
Select, acquire and assign the adequate resources to the tasks
Organize the communication between the members of the testing teams, and between the testing teams and all the other stakeholders
Justify the decisions and provide adequate reporting information where applicable
4. Test Analyst Learning Objectives
Advanced Level Test Analyst should be able to:
Structure the tasks defined in the test strategy in terms of business domain requirements
Analyze the system in sufficient detail to meet the user quality expectations
Evaluate the system requirements to determine domain validity
Prepare and execute the adequate activities, and report on their progress
Implement the necessary tools and techniques to achieve the defined
Exams
ISTQB® exams are administered by the Member Boards and the Exam Providers.
Please refer to the Member Board directory to find the exam date and location more suitable to your needs.
If you are an organization willing to manage an exam for a considerable number of your employees, please contact the Board nearest to you to sort out the possibility to organize an in-house exam.
ISTQB® exams are organized in a consistent way world-wide and are based on a precisely defined number of questions, varying depending on the certification level; questions are distributed in accordance to the syllabi topics and to K-Levels.
To learn more about ISTQB® exams, consult the Exam FAQs and take a look at the sample exams made available by ISTQB®.
For more details on exam structure please refer to the ISTQB® Exam Information document.
HYDERABAD
2012-06-02
2012-06-09
2012-06-16
NSEiT
303-304, 3rd Floor, Mahavir Chambers, 3-6-363, Near Liberty cross Road, Basheerbagh, Hyderabad � 500029 Andhra Pradesh Landmark: Mahavir Chambers
Pin: 500029
Contact No: 1204236187
Contact Person: Sonal Garg
Email: sonal@indiantestingboard.com
NSEiT Centres are for ISTQB Foundation Level Online Examinations.
How to Apply
If you are interested in getting ISTQB certification you need to do the following:
Check the examination schedule for your city.
Fill the Online Enrollment Form .
Kindly Select Public if you are appearing at our Public exam dates. If you are appearing at your company premises then select Corporate.
If you have any queries fill Online Enquiry Form.
You would immediately receive a confirmation mail in your Personal ID along with further instructions.
As per instructions Send a D/D of amount specified in mail in favour of INDIAN TESTING BOARD, payable at 'NEW DELHI' to our Noida or Bangalore Office, you can find the address at http://istqb.in/contact.htm
Last date of payment & registration for online exams is 15 days before the exam date & last date for Al exams is 10 days before the exam date.
You will be informed of the timing and procedure of the examination. Appear for the examination on the designated date, time and venue.
Please do not forget to bring a photo identity (Passport, Driving License, Election Card etc.) with you when you appear for the examination.
You will be informed of your result within two weeks and passing candidates will receive the certificate within eight weeks.
Foundation level exams are online. Results for online exam will be immediate.
Training Provider
Name
GrapeSoft
Address:
10-3-1/2, Gemini House, Mehdipatnam
City:
Hyderabad
Country:
India
Phone:
+91 40 2353 5963/64
Fax:
Mail:
business@grapesoft.com
Web Site:
www.grapesoft.com
Reference Person:
Accredited by:
Indian Testing Board (ITB)
More info exam dates......................ISTQB

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General Guidelines for Preparing ISTQB Exam pattern and syllabus

1. 40 Questions
2. 65% pass mark
3. 75 minutes
4. Multiple choice questions
5. Only one correct answer
6. No negative marking
7. Paper/Pen based exam. Darken the appropriate circle
8. Not online
9. All questions from syllabus
10. Read the syllabus very carefully
11. Question breakup
1. 50% K1 (remember, recall type)
2. 30% K2 (Compare, contrast type)
3. 20% K3 (Analyze, apply type. Numerical type as well)
4. See syllabus for details on K levels

» Syllabus Breakup for ISTQB Preparation Material

The principles of testing

Terminology; why testing is necessary; fundamental test process; psychology of testing;re-testing and regression testing; expected results; prioritization.
Testing throughout the life-cycle

Models for testing; economics of testing; high level test planning; acceptance testing; integration testing in the large; functional and non-functional system testing; integration testing in the small; component testing; maintenance testing.
Static testing

Reviews and the test process; types of review; static analysis.

Test design techniques
Dynamic testing techniques, Black and white-box testing techniques; error guessing, BVA etc.

Test management

Organization; configuration management; test estimation, monitoring and control; incident management; standards for testing.
Tool support for testing

Types of CAST tool (Computer-Aided Software Testing); tool selection and implementation.

Chapter	Number of Questions Expected from each chapter
The principles of testing	7
Testing throughout the life-cycle	6
Static testing	3
Test design techniques	12
Test management	8
Tool support for testing	4

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ISTQB Sample Question-5

ISTQB Sample Question-5

1) When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:

a) an error

b) a fault

c) a failure

d) a defect

e) a mistake

2) Regression testing should be performed:

v) every week

w) after the software has changed

x) as often as possible

y) when the environment has changed

z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false

b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false

c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false

d) w is true, v, x y and z are false

e) all of the above are true

3) IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

a) test items

b) test deliverables

c) test tasks

d) test environment

e) test specification

4) Testing should be stopped when:

a) all the planned tests have been run

b) time has run out

c) all faults have been fixed correctly

d) both a) and c)

e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5) Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the

following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid

boundaries:

a) 1000, 5000, 99999

b) 9999, 50000, 100000

c) 10000, 50000, 99999

d) 10000, 99999

e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6) Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication

ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

iii. early test design can find faults

iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements

v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false

b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false

c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false

d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

http://www.9th-direction.com Ohmkumar

e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function properly

b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability

c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action

d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function

e) testing for functions that should not exist

8) Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:

a) status accounting of configuration items

b) auditing conformance to ISO9001

c) identification of test versions

d) record of changes to documentation over time

e) controlled library access

9) Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the

small?

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately

b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once

d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10) What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution

b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete

c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs

d) to know when test planning is complete

e) to plan when to stop testing

11) Consider the following statements

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed

ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation

iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing

iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments

v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false

b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false

c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false

d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false

e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

12) Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full

statement and branch coverage:

Read P

Read Q

IF P+Q > 100 THEN

Print “Large”

ENDIF

If P > 50 THEN

Print “P Large”

ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage

d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13) Given the following:

Switch PC on

Start “outlook”

IF outlook appears THEN

Send an email

Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage

b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage

d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

14) Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN

C = A – B

ELSE

C = A + B

ENDIF

Read D

IF C = D Then

Print “Error”

ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage

d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch

15) Consider the following:

Pick up and read the newspaper

Look at what is on television

If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the

program

Otherwise

Continue reading the newspaper

If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1

b) SC = 1 and DC = 2

c) SC = 1 and DC = 3

d) SC = 2 and DC = 2

e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16) The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

a) Attend a tool exhibition

b) Invite a vendor to give a demo

c) Analyse your needs and requirements

d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool

e) Search the internet

17) When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool

b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool

c) The independent testing team

d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in

e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18) What can static analysis NOT find?

a) The use of a variable before it has been defined

b) Unreachable (“dead”) code

c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct

d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used

e) Array bound violations

19) Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

a) Equivalence partitioning

b) State transition testing

c) LCSAJ

d) Syntax testing

e) Boundary value analysis

20) Beta testing is:

a) Performed by customers at their own site

b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site

c) Performed by an independent test team

d) Useful to test bespoke software

e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21) Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an

independent test team:

i. static analysis

ii. performance testing

iii. test management

iv. dynamic analysis

v. test running

vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v

b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi

c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi

d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v

e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22) The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system

b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users

c) testing the system with other systems

d) testing for a business perspective

e) testing by an independent test team

23) Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:

a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique

b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique

c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique

d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24) Which of the following statements is NOT true:

a) inspection is the most formal review process

b) inspections should be led by a trained leader

c) managers can perform inspections on management documents

d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25) A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

a) generating expected outputs

b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script

c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes

d) recording test inputs

e) reading test values from a data file

26) The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27) Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing

b) only used in component testing

c) never specified in advance

d) most useful when specified in advance

e) derived from the code

28) Test managers should not:

a) report on deviations from the project plan

b) sign the system off for release

c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans

d) raise incidents on faults that they have found

e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29) Unreachable code would best be found using:

a) code reviews

b) code inspections

c) a coverage tool

d) a test management tool

e) a static analysis tool

30) A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:

a) a dynamic analysis tool

b) a test execution tool

c) a debugging tool

d) a test management tool

e) a configuration management tool

31) What information need not be included in a test incident report:

a) how to fix the fault

b) how to reproduce the fault

c) test environment details

d) severity, priority

e) the actual and expected outcomes

32) Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:

1. led by author

2. undocumented

3. no management participation

4. led by a trained moderator or leader

5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection

t) peer review

u) informal review

v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1

b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1

c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4

d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33) Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

a) business process-based testing

b) performance, load and stress testing

c) requirements-based testing

d) usability testing

e) top-down integration testing

34) What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour

b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code

c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases

d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run

e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35) The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207

b) BS7925-1

c) BS7925-2

d) ANSI/IEEE 829

e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36) The cost of fixing a fault:

a) Is not important

b) Increases as we move the product towards live use

c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use

d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

e) Can never be determined

37) Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation

Standard:

a) Test items (i.e. software versions)

b) What is not to be tested

c) Test environments

d) Quality plans

e) Schedules and deadlines

38) Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

a) No, because they apply to development documentation

b) No, because they are normally applied before testing

c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation

d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality

e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39) Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

a) Measuring response time

b) Measuring transaction rates

c) Recovery testing

d) Simulating many users

e) Generating many transactions

40) Error guessing is best used

a) As the first approach to deriving test cases

b) After more formal techniques have been applied

c) By inexperienced testers

d) After the system has gone live

e) Only by end users

Answers

1 » C 2 » C 3 » E 4 » E 5 » C 6 » A

7 » B 8 » B 9 » C 10 » E 11 » B 12 » B 13 » B 14 » B

15 » E 16 » C 17 » B 18 » C 19 » C 20 » A 21 » B

22 » D 23 » A 24 » D 25 » A 26 » A 27 » D 28 » C 29 » A

30 » E 31 » E 32 » B 33 » E  34 » A 35 » B 36 » B 37 » D 38 » D  39 » C

40 » B

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ISTQB Sample Question-4

1.Software testing activities should start

a. as soon as the code is written

b. during the design stage

c. when the requirements have been formally documented

d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

2.Faults found by users are due to:

a. Poor quality software

b. Poor software and poor testing

c. bad luck

d. insufficient time for testing

3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?

a. to show that system will work after release

b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release

c. to find as many bugs as possible before release

d. to give information for a risk based decision about release

4. which of the following statements is not true

a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system

b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test

c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)

d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:

a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible

b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed

c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism

d. All of the above

6.In which order should tests be run?

a. the most important tests first

b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)

c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)

d. the order they are thought of

7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?

a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.

b. wages are rising

c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc

d. none of the above

8. Which is not true-The black box tester

a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document

b. should be able to understand the source code.

c. is highly motivated to find faults

d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

9. A test design technique is

a. a process for selecting test cases

b. a process for determining expected outputs

c. a way to measure the quality of software

d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

 

a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code

b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software

c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use

d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software

system

a only records defects

b is of limited value

c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents

d. should be used only by the test team.

12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed

for testing (the test phases) by:

a. reducing test time

b. no change

c. increasing test time

d. can’t say

a. is nothing to do with testing

b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness

c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software

d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

a. when time for testing has run out.

b. when all planned tests have been run

c. when the test completion criteria have been met

d. when no faults have been found by the tests run

a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.

b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software

c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was

d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

a. how well you know a particular technique

b. the objective of the test

c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application

d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve

100% statement coverage?

1. If x=3 then

2. Display_messageX;

3. If y=2 then

4. Display_messageY;

5. Else

6. Display_messageZ;

7. Else

8. Display_messageZ;

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100%

branch/decision coverage?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

a. State-Transition

b. Usability

c. Performance

d. Security

a. State analysis

b. Coverage analysis

c. Dynamic analysis

d. Memory analysis

a. IEEE829

b. IEEE610

c. BS7925-1

d. BS7925-2

a. IEEE 829

b. IEEE 610

c. BS7925-1

d. BS7925-2

a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.

b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.

c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix

d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

a. Design based

b. Big-bang

c. Bottom-up

d. Top-down

a. statement testing

b. equivalence partitioning

c. error- guessing

d. usability testing

a. Large

b. Small

c. Difficult to write

d. Difficult to test

a. code inspection

b. coverage analysis

c. usability assessment

d. installation test

a. white box

b. glass box

c. structural

d. functional

values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to

22 are rejected

which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10,11,21

b. 3,20,21

c. 3,10,22

d. 10,21,22

30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary

values?

a. 9,10,11,22

b. 9,10,21,22

c. 10,11,21,22

d. 10,11,20,21

1 » d 2 » b 3 » d 4 » c 5 » d 6 » a 7 » c 8 » b

9 » a 10 » a 11 » c 12 » a 13 » b 14 » c 15 » b

16 » b 17 » c 18 » c 19 » a 20 » c 21 » b 22 » d

23 » c 24 » a 25 » b 26 » d 27 » a 28 » d 29 » c

30 » b

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